ASVAB General Science Practice Test

Try our free ASVAB General Science Practice Test. The CAT-ASVAB General Science test consists of 16 questions to be completed within 8 minutes. This portion of the exam covers a wide variety of topics including life science, earth science and physical science. To pass this test you will need a broad understanding of biology, geology, meteorology, astronomy, chemistry, and physics. Start your test prep now with our free ASVAB General Science practice questions.

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Question 1

Newton’s First Law of Motion states that objects in motion remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force, and objects at rest stay at rest unless acted upon by an outside force. This statement is also referred to as the law of

A
Momentum
B
Inertia
C
Force
D
Friction
Question 1 Explanation: 
The correct answer is (B). Newton’s First Law of Motion is also referred to as the law of inertia. Inertia is the tendency of an object to resist change in motion.
Question 2

Which atmospheric layer contains the ozone layer?

A
Troposphere
B
Stratosphere
C
Mesosphere
D
Thermosphere
Question 2 Explanation: 
The correct answer is (B). The troposphere is the lowest atmospheric layer, and contains water vapor and suspended particles, and is where weather takes place. The stratosphere is above the troposphere, and is the region that contains the ozone layer, which absorbs most of the Sun's ultraviolet radiation. The mesosphere is the next highest layer followed by the thermosphere and exosphere.
Question 3

Humans can breed plants and animals to have useful traits. By selecting which animals are allowed to reproduce, humans can influence an organism’s genotype. What name did Darwin use to describe this process?

A
Natural selection
B
Hybridism
C
Survival of the fittest
D
Artificial selection
Question 3 Explanation: 
The correct answer is (D). Darwin used the term artificial selection to distinguish this process from natural selection. Natural selection is the process by which living things with beneficial traits tend to survive and reproduce more than individuals with other, less successful, traits. It is also known as survival of the fittest.

Artificial selection, on the other hand, is the reproduction of organisms with beneficial traits resulting from the influence of humans.
Question 4

Which of the following is equal to the atomic number of a chemical element?

A
Number of protons
B
Number of neutrons
C
Mass number
D
Number of atoms
Question 4 Explanation: 
The correct answer is (A). The atomic number of an element is a unique identifier that indicates the number of protons found in the nucleus of an atom of that element. In an uncharged atom, the atomic number is also equal to the number of electrons. This makes sense because protons are positively charged and electrons are negatively charged—having the same number of protons and electrons gives an overall, uncharged atom.
Question 5

Which type of symbiotic relationship takes place when one member of the association benefits while the other is harmed?

A
Mutualism
B
Commensalism
C
Parasitism
D
Predation
Question 5 Explanation: 
The correct answer is (C). Symbiosis is a close, long-lasting relationship shared by two or more different species. There are 3 major categories of symbiotic relationships:

Parasitism is a symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits while the other is harmed. For example, tapeworms are parasitic to humans because they consume nutrients from the human host, depriving the host of these nutrients.

Mutualism is a symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit from the relationship.

Commensalism is a symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits while the other is neither harmed nor helped.
Question 6

In the field of genetics, an organism’s appearance is referred to as its:

A
Genes
B
Alleles
C
Genotype
D
Phenotype
Question 6 Explanation: 
The correct answer is (D). An individual’s genes are segments of DNA that carry hereditary information, and are located on chromosomes. An allele is a variant form of a particular gene. An organism’s genotype is its inherited combination of alleles. An organism’s phenotype is the expression of the alleles, or its appearance.
Question 7

The tilt of the Earth's rotational axis toward or away from the sun causes:

A
Seasons
B
Global warming
C
Daylight savings time
D
24-hour days
Question 7 Explanation: 
The correct answer is (A). Because of Earth's axial tilt, different areas of Earth point toward or away from the Sun at different times of the year. In June, the North Pole is tilted toward the Sun and the Northern Hemisphere receives more of the Sun's direct rays. At the same time, the South Pole points away from the Sun, creating winter in the Southern Hemisphere during the months of June, July and August.
Question 8

The Big Bang theory is a model used to explain the:

A
Reason the universe was created
B
Beginning of life
C
Origin of the universe
D
Law of gravity
Question 8 Explanation: 
The correct answer is (C). The Big Bang theory is the most popular and widely accepted explanation for how the universe began. According to the Big Bang model, all of the current and past matter in the universe came into existence at the same time (about 13.8 billion years ago). At this time, all matter was compacted into a very small ball with infinite density called a singularity. Suddenly, the singularity expanded, and the universe as we know it began.
Question 9

Animals that feed exclusively on plants are called:

A
Primary consumers
B
Secondary consumers
C
Primary producers
D
Tertiary consumers
Question 9 Explanation: 
The correct answer is (A). In an ecological food chain, primary producers are those that photosynthesize and utilize sunlight as their energy source; this trophic level is almost entirely made up of plants. Primary consumers attain their energy from primary producers; cows are primary consumers as they survive solely on grass. Secondary consumers, such as wolves and eagles, feed upon primary consumers, and tertiary consumers, like great white sharks, feed upon primary and secondary consumers.
Question 10

Which of the following biological classifications is the largest and most inclusive?

A
Phylum
B
Kingdom
C
Family
D
Class
Question 10 Explanation: 
The correct answer is (B). The taxonomy ranks run from largest to smallest: Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species. A useful mnemonic for remembering this is, ‘King Philip Came Over For Great Spaghetti.’
Question 11

The energy of an object resulting solely from motion is:

A
Kinetic energy
B
Thermal energy
C
Mechanical energy
D
Potential energy
Question 11 Explanation: 
The correct answer is (A). Kinetic energy is the energy which an object possesses because of its motion. Potential energy is the stored energy in an object due to its position or its configuration. Thermal energy relates an object’s energy to its temperature. The mechanical energy of an object is the sum of its kinetic and potential energy.
Question 12

Sara jumped off her row boat into the lake. As she pushed her body forward the boat moved backwards. Which of Newton’s laws best describes the motion of Sara and her boat?

A
Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation
B
Newton’s First Law of Motion
C
Newton’s Second Law of Motion
D
Newton’s Third Law of Motion
Question 12 Explanation: 
The correct answer is (D). Newton's laws of motion describe the relationship between an object and the forces acting upon it, and its motion in response to these forces.

Newton’s First Law of Motion states that objects in motion remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force; objects at rest stay at rest unless acted upon by an outside force. For example, if a ball is sitting on the floor, it will stay on the floor until someone kicks it.

Newton’s Second Law of Motion states that the acceleration of an object is equal to the net force acting on it divided by an object’s mass. For example, when you throw a ball, the harder you throw, the more the ball accelerates.

Newton’s Third Law of Motion states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. The same force that Sara used to push forward made the boat move backwards.
Question 13

A sudden intense brightening from a small area of the Sun's surface is called a:

A
Sunspot
B
Prominence
C
Solar flare
D
Quasar
Question 13 Explanation: 
The correct answer is (C). Solar flares usually occur in the vicinity of a magnetic inversion near a group of sunspots. The flare develops in a few minutes, or even seconds, and may last several hours.

Sunspots are temporary dark spots that sometimes appear on the surface of the Sun. Prominences are huge loops of gas that erupt from sunspot regions. Quasars are the very bright centers of distant galaxies.
Question 14

Waves bend when they move around obstructions or pass through narrow openings. This type of bending is called:

A
Reflection
B
Refraction
C
Diffraction
D
Interference
Question 14 Explanation: 
The correct answer is (C). Waves are a means by which energy travels. There are physical waves such as sound and water waves. There are also electromagnetic waves such as light waves.

Diffraction is the bending of waves as they pass through an opening or around a barrier in their path. We can hear around a corner because of the diffraction of sound waves.

Reflection is the change in direction of waves when they bounce off a barrier. Refraction is the change in direction of waves as they pass from one medium to another.
Question 15

What is true of Meiosis?

A
It involves only one cell division
B
It is used to generate sex cells
C
It results in the formation of two diploid daughter cells
D
It produces genetically identical cells
Question 15 Explanation: 
The correct answer is (B). Meiosis is a process where a single cell divides twice to produce four daughter cells. These daughter cells are haploid, which means that they contain half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell. They are genetically distinct cells sex cells—sperm in males, eggs in females.
Question 16

Two objects on Earth are dropped from the top of a building that is 70 meters high. Object A has a mass of 12 g and object B has a mass of 6 kg. Assuming there is no air resistance, which object will hit the ground first?

A
Object A
B
Object B
C
Both objects will hit the ground at the same time
D
There is not enough information to determine an outcome
Question 16 Explanation: 
The correct answer is (C). Without air resistance, the only force acting on the two objects is the Earth’s gravitational field. Consequently, the acceleration of both object A and object B is independent of mass, and every second, both velocities will increase by 9.8 meters per second. Given that both objects are dropped from the same height, and they both travel at the same rate, they will both hit the ground at the same time.
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